UPSC GS-1 2017 -Solved Paper

Disclaimer : Final answers depend on the UPSC Key

 

1.) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer:  d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Explanation: 

  1. Every Member of Parliament, who is not a Minister, is called a Private Member.
  2. 14 bills passed so far (http://www.prsindia.org/media/articles-citing-prs/only-14-private-members-bills-passed-since-independence-3759/)

2) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them
  2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron
  3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. a) 1 only
  2. b) 2 and 3 only
  3. c) 1 and 3 only
  4. d) 1,2 and 3

Answer:   a) 1 only

Explanation: 

  1. Indus Valley people used gold for ornaments etc.
  2. A few horse bones and terracotta figure of a ‘horse-like animal’ were found at Surkotada in Gujarat. IMO, That’s enough evidence for awareness 🙂

3) ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

  1. Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels
  2. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programme
  3. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings
  4. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme

Answer:   a)

Explanation:    http://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-others/formal-badge-for-non-formal-skill/


4) From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

  1. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  2. Nallamala Forest
  3. Nagarhole National Park
  4. Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer:   a)

Explanation:    According to this  The Hindu article,  Moyar valley in Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is the connecting corridor of the Western Ghats to the Eastern Ghats contributing to an enriched gene pool

 


5)  One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

  1. Privileges
  2. Restraints
  3. Competition
  4. Ideology

Answer:   a)

Explanation:     “Social equality in a society is the social state of affairs whereby all the people in the society have equal rights under the law, including right to vote, physical security, freedom of speech and assembly, and the right to own property and to protect it.”

http://www.innovateus.net/innopedia/what-social-equality


6)  Consider the following statements in respect of TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce)

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:  b) 2 only

Explanation: 

http://www.traffic.org/overview

  1. Under IUCN and WWF
  2. TRAFFIC’s mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

7) Which principle among the following was added to by the 42nd amendment act?

  1. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
  3. Right to work, education and public assistance
  4. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

 

Answer:  b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

Explanation: 

  • 42nd Constitutional Amendment added to the Directive Principles, Art.39A, Art.43A and Art. 48A.
  • Article 43A : Participation of workers in management of industries.—The State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organisations engaged in any industry

8) Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Rights are claims of the state against the citizens
  2. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the constitution of a state
  3. Rights are claims of the citizens against the state
  4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against many

Answer:  c)


9) Which of the following gives ‘global gender gap index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

  1. World Economic Forum
  2. UN Human Rights Council
  3. UN Women
  4. World Health Organization

 

Answer:  a) World Economic Forum

 Explanation: 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Gender_Gap_Report

 


10) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into smart cities in a decade
  2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
  3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer:  b) 2 only

 Explanation: 

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=159825

  1. To build Digital India and to engage our youth directly with nation building
  2. Govt. departments were directly engaging with students and challenging them to build digital solutions to improve their efficiency, plug revenue leakages and corruption

11) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2.  It is a 12 -member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 -only
  4. 2 and-3 only

Answer:  a) 1 only

 Explanation: 

  1. The MPC is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to contain inflation within the target level
  2. Six Members -three Members will be from the RBI and the other three appointed by the Central Government.
  3. The Governor of RBI—Chairperson

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=151264


12) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a song and dance performance.
  2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
  3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3 only

c)2 and 3 only

d)1 only

Answer:  b) 1 and 3 only

 Explanation: 

https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/sankirtana-ritual-singing-drumming-and-dancing-of-manipur-00843

  1. Performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance
  2. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform

13) Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

  1.  Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)1 only

b)1 and 3 only

c)2 and 3 only

d)1, 2 and 3

 

Answer:  c) 2 and 3 only

 Explanation: 

https://www.britannica.com/topic/ryotwari-system

  • Ryotwari system was devised by Capt. Alexander Read and Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor (1820–27) of Madras

 

14) In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/ advantages of bioremediation technique?

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a)1 only

b)2 and 3 only

c)1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 

Answer:  d) 1, 2 and 3

 Explanation: 

http://www.moef.nic.in/downloads/public-information/BioremediationBook.pdf

  1. Rhizofiltration is the use of plant roots to absorb contaminants that sorb strongly to roots such as lead, chromium (III), uranium, and arsenic.
  2. Bioremediation and enhanced phytovolatilization is done using Molecular genetic and transgenic strategies.

15)    The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

a)the participation of workers in the management of industries.

b)arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes

c)an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute

d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.


16) Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

a) Federalism

b) Democratic decentralisation

c)  Administrative delegation

d)  Direct democracy

Answer:   b)

Explanation: 

https://kerala.gov.in/local-self-government

 


17)  Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. Legislative function
  2. Executive function

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

  1. The percepts of Directive Principles are not justiciable and hence they are not enforceable by a court order.
  2. They are designed to serve as a guide for the Union Parliament and the state assembles in framing new legislation.

18) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

a) ASEAN

b)  BRICS

c)  EU

d) G20

 

Answer:   c)

Explanation: 

https://ec.europa.eu/commission/priorities/digital-single-market_en


19) At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique Phenomenon is seen at
a) Bhavnagar

b) Bheemunipatnam

c) Chandipur

d) Nagapattinam

 

Answer:   c)

 

Explanation: 

http://indiatoday.intoday.in/story/chandipur-beach-sea-water-chandipur-odisha/1/178011.html


20) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :20) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.

2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.

3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2  only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

 

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

http://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/the-benami-transactions-prohibition-amendment-bill-2015-3789/

  • four authorities to conduct inquiries or investigations regarding benami transactions: (i) Initiating Officer, (ii) Approving Authority, (iii) Administrator and (iv) Adjudicating Authority
  • To establish adjudicating authorities and an Appellate Tribunal to deal with benami transactions

21) Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.

2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.

3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1  only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

  1. http://butterfly-conservation.org/45/why-butterflies-matter.html
  2. http://animals.mom.me/eating-habits-morpho-butterfly-8700.html : According to this link, butterflies feed on fungi
  3. http://www.thebutterflysite.com/what-eats-butterflies.shtml : Some of the common predators of butterflies include wasps, ants, parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats, lizards, dragonflies, frogs , spiders and even monkeys!

 


22) It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

  1.  Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents. 
  2.  Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
  3.  Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:   b)

Explanation: 

https://energy.gov/sites/prod/files/2014/09/f18/algal_biofuels_factsheet.pdf

  1.  Can utilize nonproductive lands.
  2.  Despite its huge potential, the technology of using microalgae as biomass feedstocks for advanced biofuels faces major challenges from both technical and economic barriers. These include developing suitable algal strains and cultivation parameters, developing processes to harvest the biomass and convert it to fuels and products, and rendering the entire process economical
  3.  Requires a considerable amount of land and water

23) Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

  1.      To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

 

Answer:   a)

Explanation: 

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=103192

The key objectives of  ‘National Nutrition Mission’ are:

  • To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
  • To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
  • To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

24) Consider the following statements:

  1.  The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2.  N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:   b)

Explanation: 

    1. The Act prohibited the employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working hours for children below the age of twelve and required that dangerous machinery should be fenced properly.The Act also made provision for one hour rest during the working period and four days leave in a month for the workers

    http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/reforms-brought-by-lord-ripon-discussed/2563

  1. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He is remembered not only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Narayan_Meghaji_Lokhande


25) In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

  1.  Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
  2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_capture_and_storage

  • Oil fields, gas fields, saline formations, unmineable coal seams, and saline-filled basalt formations have been suggested as storage sites

26) The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

c) Impose censorship on national press.

d) Prove the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

 

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

Excerpts from Advance Study in the History of Modern India (Volume-3: 1920-1947) By G.S.Chhabra


27) The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement‘ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

a) Developing solar power production in our country

b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country

c)  Exporting our food products to other countries

d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Answer:   a)

Explanation: 

http://www.thehindu.com/business/wto-rules-against-india-in-solar-dispute-with-us-report/article7586246.ece


 

28) Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.

2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:   d)

Explanation: 

  1. Nuclear Security Summits are aimed at  tangible improvements in the security of nuclear materials and stronger international institutions that support nuclear security.

http://www.nss2016.org/

  1. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) was founded in January 2006 and is an independent group of arms-control and nonproliferation experts from both nuclear weapon and non-nuclear weapon states.

http://fissilematerials.org/ipfm/about.html


29) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS) ?
a) Resident Indian citizens only

b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only

c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective state governments

d) Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Answer:   c)

Explanation: 

https://india.gov.in/spotlight/national-pension-system-retirement-plan-all#nps3

  • All citizens of India between the age of 18 and 60 years
  • All new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies
  • All the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
  • Corporate would have the flexibility to decide investment choice either at subscriber level or at the corporate level centrally for all its underlying subscribers

30) With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

  1.  The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
  2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
  3.  River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:   b)

Explanation: 

  1. Brahmaputra’s source is Angsi Glacier whereas Teesta’s source is Pauhunri
  2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rangeet_River
  3. Teesta flows into Jamuna river in Bangladesh

31) Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:   c)

Explanation: 

Zika virus is primarily transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in tropical regions. Aedes mosquitoes usually bite during the day, peaking during early morning and late afternoon/evening. This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever. Sexual transmission of Zika virus is also possible. Other modes of transmission such as blood transfusion are being investigated.

http://www.who.int/mediacentre/factsheets/zika/en/


32) Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.

2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and  Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:   b)

Explanation: 

  1. http://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/BIS-certification-to-be-made-mandatory-for-tyres-and-tubes/article12079528.ece
  2.  AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (and ammended in 1986). The present AGMARK standards cover quality guidelines for 205 different commodities spanning a variety of Pulses, Cereals, Essential Oils, Vegetable Oils, Fruits & Vegetables, and semi-processed products like Vermicelli.  http://agritech.tnau.ac.in/amis/food_agmark.html

 


33) What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

1. It is a pan -India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.

2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  c) Both 1 and 2

 Explanation: 

Statements taken verbatim from http://www.enam.gov.in/NAM/home/about_nam.html#


34) With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

  1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  c) Both 1 and 2

 Explanation: 

http://www.thehindu.com/business/all-you-need-to-know-about-the-intellectual-property-rights-policy/article8600530.ece

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=145338


34) According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

  1. Gharial
  2. Indian wild ass
  3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d) 1, 2 and 3

 Explanation: 

Gharial, Indian wild ass and Wild buffalo come under Schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Part III, Section 11 of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 states “the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by order in writing and stating the reasons therefore, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted;”

 http://bamu.ac.in/dept/zoology/2.%20The%20wild%20life%20_Protection_%20Act,%201972.pdf


36)Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties. .

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: 

  1. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable. It means that the violation of fundamental duties, i.e. the non-performance of these duties by citizens is not punishable
  2. A legal duty is defined as ‘an obligation arising out of contract or law’

37) Consider the following pairs:

  1. Radhakanta Deb —First President of the British Indian Association
  2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty — Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3. Surendranath Banerjee —Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  b) 1 and 3 only

 

Explanation: 

  1. Raja Radhakanta Deb was the first President British Indian Association
  2. Madras Native Association was established by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1849. In May 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3.  Indian Association was founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in 1876.

38) Which of the following objectives is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of  India?
a) Liberty of thought

b) Economic Liberty

c) Liberty of Expression

d) Liberty of belief

Answer:  b) Economic Liberty

Explanation: 

Preamble states “LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship


39)With reference to ‘Quality Council of India’(QCI),consider the following statements:

  1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry
  2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the government

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  b) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: 

Statements taken verbatim from http://www.qcin.org/about.php


40) What is the purpose of setting up of Small Financial Banks (SMFs) in India?

  1. To supply credit to small business units
  2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
  3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d) 1,2 and 3

 

Explanation: 


41)  With reference to Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD),consider the following

  1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ’Emerging Urban Forms-Policy Responses and Governance Structure’
  2. India holds all the annual ministerial conferences in partnership with ADB,APEC and ASEAN

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Explanation:

http://www.apmchud.com/indexapmc.aspx#

  1. The theme of 2006 conference was “A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”
  2. India does not hold all the annual ministerial conferences

42) Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

a) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women

b) The methods for strengthening executive leadership

c) A superior individual with dynamism and vision

d) A band of dedicated party workers

 

Answer:  a) The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women

 Explanation:

“Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women” – John Stuart Mill


43) Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface’ (UPI) ?

a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments

b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about 2 decades

c) FDI inflows will drastically increase

d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective

 

Answer:  a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments

 

Explanation:

http://www.npci.org.in/UPI_Background.aspx


44) The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses

c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth

d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Answer:  a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

Explanation:

http://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_blackholes_theory.html


 

45) With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequences’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. Technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host -pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d)

Genome sequencing is useful in fields like plant and animal breeding, population genetics and clinical applications such as determining disease risk factors and discovering novel biomarkers for diseases diagnosis.


46)The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

a) the executive and legislature work independently

b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.

d) The head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer:  c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.

 


47) In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen

(d)Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

 

Answer:  (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

Explanation:

“Rights have real meaning only if individuals perform duties”

http://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-16.pdf


48) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?48) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer:  a) The Preamble

Explanation:

http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/pre_mb.htm


49) If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 8

d) 9

Answer:  b) 7

Explanation:

Nagaland-> Assam -> W Bengal -> Odisha-> Andhra Pradesh ->Tamil Nadu/Karnataka -> Kerala


50) The Parliament  of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1.    Adjournment motion
  2.    Question hour
  3.  Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  1. The subject matter of the Adjournment motion must have adirect or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government and must precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law
  2. Question Houris the first hour of a sitting session of India’s Lok Sabha devoted toquestions that Members of Parliament raise about any aspect of administrative activity. The concerned Minister is obliged to answer to the Parliament, either orally or in writing, depending on the type of question raised.

51) Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom ?

a) Kakinada

b) Motupalli

c)  Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)

(d) Nelluru

Answer:  b) Motupalli

Explanation:

Excerpts fromPrecolonial India in Practice: Society, Region, and Identity in Medieval Andhra By Cynthia Talbot


52) With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements ‘ is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
  2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
  3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  1. GCCA was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).
  2. GCCA+ acts as a source of technical and financial supportfor the world’s most climate-vulnerable countries, whose populations need climate finance the most.    http://www.gcca.eu/about-the-gcca/what-is-the-gcca

 

53)With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
  2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were early Buddhist schools
  2. Sarvastivadins consider everything empirical to be impermanent, but they maintain that the dharma factors are eternally existing realities

 https://www.britannica.com/topic/Sarvastivada


54) Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

  1. Jordan
  2. Iraq
  3. Lebanon
  4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

 


 

55. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following pltatements is/are correct?

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It has a corpus of 4,00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:  b) 2 only

Explanation:

  1. Not an organ of NITI ayog

 http://niifindia.com/home-page.html

 


56) The Global Infrastructure Facility, is a/an

(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.

(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates  the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public -Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment

(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Answer:  (b)

Explanation:

http://www.globalinfrafacility.org/what-is-the-gif


57) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India

(b) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested

(c)  Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency

(d)  Any citizen of India.

Answer:  (c)

Explanation:

  •  Article 84 (a) of the Constitution of India envisages that a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill up a seat in the Parliament unless he is a citizen of India.
  • For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies.
  • http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/Contesting.aspx

 


58) Consider the following statements :

  1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States
  2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
  3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. The eleven Himalayan States are Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim.
  2. Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat (6 states)

http://whc.unesco.org/en/list/1342

  1. Pulicat Lake has over 40% of it in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu

59) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest  ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

(d)  Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

http://www.freedrinkingwater.com/water_quality/quality1/1-bod-effects-on-water-quality.htm

 


60) With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in The United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
  2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
  3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 only

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. Mandated by the UN General Assembly in 1978 to address the issues of urban growth
  2. UN-Habitat establishes think tanks and networks that enable governments, experts, civil society groups, multilateral organizations, private sector, and all other development partners to jointly address present and future urban predicaments
  3. Aims to address (by assuming a natural leadership and catalytic role in urban matters) lack of proper housing and growth of slums, inadequate and out-dated infrastructure – be it roads, public transport, water, sanitation, or electricity – escalating poverty and unemployment, safety and crime problems, pollution and health issues, as well as poorly managed natural or man-made disasters and other catastrophes due to the effects of climate change

https://unhabitat.org/about-us/un-habitat-at-a-glance/


61) With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning
  2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. Levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude are defined based on learning outcomes which the learner possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, non-formal or informal learning
  2. A key objective is multiple entry and exit between vocational education, skill training, general education, technical education and job markets

NSQF


62) In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to

(a)Division of the central legislature into two houses

(b)Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.

(c)Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi

(d)Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories

 

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  • Double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India.
  • The Act provided a dual form of government (a “diarchy“) for the major provinces. In each such province, control of some areas of government, the “transferred list”, were given to aGovernment of ministers answerable to the Provincial Council. The ‘transferred list’ included agriculture, supervision of local government, health, and education.

63) Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

  1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
  2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  d)

As it benefits uneducated as well, answer could also be b)

Explanation:

  1. Under Ministry of Labour and Employment
  2. Not only to ‘uneducated’ youth. Beneficiaries include

64)  Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news ?

(a)  It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.

(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

(c)   It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.

(d)It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government

 

Answer:  b)

        Explanation:

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=10446&Mode=0


65)  Consider the following statements :

  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
  2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  b)

        Explanation:

  1. Initiative of the governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  2. The Coalition’s initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs

http://www.ccacoalition.org/en/content/about-us


66) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
  2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or poles, hence a dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia.
  2. It is believed that the IOD has a link with ENSO events through an extension of the Walker Circulation to the west and associated Indonesian throughflow (the flow of warm tropical ocean water from the Pacific into the Indian Ocean).

http://www.bom.gov.au/climate/enso/history/ln-2010-12/IOD-what.shtml


67) If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(c) Pulicat Lake

(d) Deepor Beel

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  • Today, their major population remain in three tributaries of the Ganges River: the Chambal and the Girwa Rivers in India, and the Rapti-Naryani River in Nepal.
  • The gharial reserves of India are located in three States – Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

http://www.wwfindia.org/indian_gharial.cfm


68) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

  1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
  2.  IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08. CNS, Indian Navy was designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10.
  2. The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues.

http://ions.gov.in/about_ions


69) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

a) Ajanta

b) Badami

c) Bagh

d) Ellora

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

https://www.inditales.com/understanding-ajanta-paintings-cave-no-1/


70) Consider the following pairs :

    Traditions  –  Communities

  1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis
  2. Nanda Raj(jaat Yatra) – Gonds
  3. Wari-Warkari –Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  1. http://chalihasahib.com/about/
  2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nanda_Devi_Raj_Jat
  3. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pandharpur_Wari

71)  Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture ?

  1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
  2.   Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
  3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

 

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  1. No-till is an agricultural technique which increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No-till_farming

2. Adding gypsum is beneficial because it increases the salinity of low salt waters, thus improving infiltration

3. Crop residues or other organic matter left in the field will improve water penetration. It is one of the easiest methods to improve water infiltration, especially for small farmers who do not have the resources to implement more costly corrective measures.

http://www.fao.org/docrep/003/T0234E/T0234E04.htm


72)  Consider the following statements :

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

The declared objectives are

  • to make agriculture more productive,sustainable and climate resilient
  • to conserve natural resources
  • to adopt comprehensive soil health management practices
  • to optimize utilization of water resources

http://www.soilhealth.dac.gov.in/Content/blue/soil/about.html


73) Consider the following pairs :

Commonly used /
consumed materials
Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to – be found in them
Lipstick Lead
Soft Drink  Brominated vegetable oils
Chinese fast food Monosodium
glutamate

 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a)1 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  1. Lipstick : https://www.fda.gov/cosmetics/productsingredients/products/ucm137224.htm
  2. Soft drink: https://www.usatoday.com/story/news/nation/2014/05/05/coke-pepsi-dropping-bvo-from-all-drinks/8736657/
  3. Chinesefood:http://www.businessinsider.in/MSG-Is-Perfectly-Safe-Heres-Why/articleshow/40952150.cms

 

74) Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
  2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
  3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer:  C)

Explanation:

  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, leading to the possible fabrication of flexible organic light-emitting diodes for other new applications, such as roll-up displays embedded in fabrics or clothing.
  2. Transparent OLEDs use transparent or semi-transparent contacts on both sides of the device to create transparent displays .

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OLED


75) Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

  1. Arasavalli
  2. Amarakantak
  3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  1. http://www.arasavallisungod.org/
  2. Amarkantak: Temples for Narmada,Shiva etc : http://www.india.com/travel/amarkantak/places-to-visit/temples-narmadakund-temples/
  1. Omkareshwar is a Hindu temple dedicated to God Shiva. It is one of the 12 revered Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omkareshwar

 

76) Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  1. After the counting of votes is over, the Returning Officer declares the name of the candidate to whom the largest number of votes have been given as the winner, and as having been returned by the constituency to the concerned house(First past the post system)

http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#countingofvotes

  1. Speaker’s election process: http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/rules/rulep3.html

The party of the speaker/deputy speaker is just convention.

 


77) Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. Share of agriculture in GDP declined. http://statisticstimes.com/economy/sectorwise-gdp-contribution-of-india.php
  2. Post liberalization period saw a tremendous growth of exports, imports, foreign exchange, and a decline of internal debt. The only concern found was the faster growth of imports as compared to exports http://ietd.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/3539/12/12_chapter%202.pdf

 

78) What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

(a) Production of biolarvicides

(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics

(c) Reproductive cloning of animals

(d) Production of organisms free of diseases

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

  • The most practical application of SCNT is in the reproductive cloning of farm animals that have exceptional qualities
  • The technique also could be used to resurrect extinct species; for example, cells collected from a frozen woolly mammoth could be used as nuclear donors for enucleated elephant eggs.

https://www.britannica.com/science/somatic-cell-nuclear-transfer


79) Consider the following statements:

  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting  financial inclusion in the country.
  2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

  1. An objective of NPCI is ‘to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion.’
  2. Domestic card payment network named RuPay was introduced to provide an alternative to international card schemes

http://www.npci.org.in/aboutus.aspx


  1. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

http://admin.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/files/mstripes-ppt.pdf


81) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  1. GST will ensure that indirect tax rates and structures are common across the country. It would make doing business in the country tax neutral, irrespective of the choice of place of doing business.
  2. It might give a positive boost to CAD, foreign exchange and the economy. But let’s not take ‘drastic reduction’, ’enormous increase’, ’Overtaking China’ etc too lightly 🙂

http://www.gstindia.com/about/

 


82) ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

(a) European Union

(b) Gulf Cooperation Council

(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

http://commerce.nic.in/trade/international_ta_current_details.asp


83) Consider the following statements:

  1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  1. India ratified TFA on 22 April 2016
  2. WTO Members concluded negotiations on Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) at their 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference
  3. TFA entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership.

http://www.tfafacility.org/

https://www.wto.org/english/tratop_e/tradfa_e/tradfa_e.htm


84) What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

  1. The port will make way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route. At present, Pakistan does not allow India to transport through its territory to Afghanistan. It has, however, recently allowed some Afghan shipments to come to India.
  2. This will also give momentum to the International North-South Transport Corridor .Iran is the key gateway in this project. It entails the ship, rail, and road routes for moving freight between India, Russia, Iran, Europe and Central Asia.
  3. It would counter Chinese presence in the Arabian sea through the support to Pakistan in developing Gwadar port.
  4. It can be used to station security vessels for merchant ships off the African coast
  5. Country gets a foothold in the western Arabian Sea, which is important as many of its energy imports pass through the route.

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/52400399.cms?utm_source=contentofinterest&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst


85) In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

  1. Service providers
  2. Data centres
  3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

https://cis-india.org/internet-governance/blog/incident-response-requirements-in-indian-law


  1. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(c) Constitutional Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  • In India, the right to vote is provided by the Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951, subject to certain disqualifications.  Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18.  Further, Section 62 of the Representation of Peoples Act (RoPA), 1951 states that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency will be entitled to vote.

http://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/?p=3370

http://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/supreme-error/


 

  1. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?

(a) To detect neutrinos

(b) To detect gravitational waves

(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system

(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  • eLISA, the “evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna”, is an interferometric detector in space, with laser arms one million kilometres in length.
  • It’s the ESA’s variant of the original LISA concept by NASA
  • Objectives
  1. eLISA’s primary objective is the detection and examination of gravitational waves emitted by the super massive black holes that reside in the centres of many galaxies.
  2. In addition, eLISA will measure the signals of thousands of compact binary star systems in the Milky Way.
  3. Also, it listens to signals from the hot early phase of our universe, corresponding to a cosmic time of tiny fractions of a second.

http://www.einstein-online.info/spotlights/eLISA


 

88)  What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?

  1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
  2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
  3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  • Vidyanjali is an initiative to enhance community and private sector involvement in Government run elementary schools across the country under the overall aegis of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
  • Through this initiative people from the Indian Diaspora, retired teachers, retired government officials including retired defence personnel, retired professionals and women who are home makers can volunteer at a school that requests for one.
  • It will also cover initiatives under the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and Public Private Partnership (PPP), with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Companies, private corporate and others.

http://vidyanjali.mygov.in/index.php/frontend/guideline


  1. What is the aim of the programme  ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.

(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.

(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

Aim : To involve professional and other higher educational institutions of the country in the process of indigenous development of self-sufficient and sustainable village clusters in tune with the notion of ‘GramSwaraj’ propounded by Mahatma Gandhi

http://unnat.iitd.ac.in/index.php/en/

 


90. Consider the following statements :

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

  1. At present, the Election Commission of India is a three-member body, with one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/election-machinery.aspx

  1. The Election Commission decides the schedule

http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#schedulingelec

  1. The Election Commission has to resolve the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

http://eci.nic.in/eci_main1/the_function.aspx#splitsandmergers


  1. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.

(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.

(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

 

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

(2nd question on Schedule I !!   :-O )

  1. Tiger is in schedule I
  2. List includes animals like Tiger,Indian Lion,Indian Elephant etc. which do exist in the wild
  3. Not necessarily endemic to a specific region e.g:-Indian Elephant

  1. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

  • The power of judiciary to review and determine the validity of a law or an order may be described as the powers of Judicial Review.
  • It means that the constitution is the supreme law of the land and any law inconsistent therewith is void through judicial review.

 


93. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :

  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 2-1-3

(c) 3-2-1

(d) 3-1-2

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy -1946
  2. Quit India Movement launched-1942
  3. Second Round Table Conference-1931

Hence  3-2-1


94) Consider the following statements :

  1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

 


95) Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?

(a) Corbett National Park

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Sariska National Park

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

No deadline yet on translocation of Gir lions to Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno Palpur


96) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:  b)

Explanation:

  1. President can either suspend or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
  2. He/She dismisses the council of ministers
  3. Local bodies are not affected

Excerpts from Indian Polity by Lakshmikanth


97) Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:  c)

Explanation:

Right against Exploitation

Article 23 : Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.—No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.


98) Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?

(a) Sumatra

(b) Borneo

(c) Java

(d) Sri Lanka

Answer:  a)

Explanation:

Distance From Great Nicobar
  1. Sumatra, Indonesia-1299.45 km
  2.  Borneo-1479.12 km
  3. Java, Indonesia-3739.19 km
  4. Sri Lanka –1437.64 km

Courtesy :https://www.scribblemaps.com/tools/distance-calculator


  1. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer:  c)

Explanation:


100) Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer:  d)

Explanation:

Major features are

  1. Written Constitution
  2. Rigid Constitution
  3. Division of Powers between  States and the Centre through the  three lists, viz. the Union, the State and the Concurrent List
  4. An independent judiciary to interpret the Constitution and to maintain its sanctity
  5. The equality of units in a federation is best guaranteed by their equal representation in the Uppers House of the federal legislature (Parliament). However, this is not applicable in case of Indian States. They have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha unlike in the case of say,the USA.

http://download.nos.org/srsec317newE/317EL8.pdf